As I was reading the Aramaic Targum of Pseudo-Jonathan, I came across a unique word @ Genesis 21:32.

In the King James Version this word is translated ad Philistines.

So how would this word be equivalent to Palestine?
This word in Aramaic would be: Χ€ΧΧΧ©ΧͺΧΧ and the speaking this word with no influence of vowel markings that were put in at a later time then we would get Χ€ = P , Χ = L , Χ = Y “ee” , Χ© = SH , Χͺ = T/TH , Χ = A , Χβ= Y “ee”
When putting this all together it would be translated into Plyshtay “Pl-ee-shta-ee” which is very similar to “Palestine”.
Another piece of evidence is Joel 3:4 in the King James Version which is:

But, in the Aramaic Targum of Pseudo-Jonathan this is equivalent to Joel 4:4 which reads:

If you click on the world it will bring you to a translation page:

In my research, I’ve never connected Palestine to Philistine nor ever heard of anyone connecting those dots. This puts more perspective on the narrative that is being told to us. If you don’t already know, America is the true Holy Land where the land of Canaan, the land of the Philistines (Assyria), Babylon, land of the Egypt etc. were all located.
This truth is not an easy pill to swallow but nevertheless, if you want to go down that rabbit hole here’s a brother that led me to the truth. It took me a while to grasp but, YHWH π€π€π€ π€ (I will be) is awesome!





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